Is the first one implying that one should consider the first two as one? As I understand it we (the UK) went to war on behalf of Kuwait on the grounds of some kind of defence treaty, which would make it, at the very least, a different situation, legally, surely?
But I can understand that its very complicated - venturing into the realms of legal philosophy, who had the rights to make laws, and who should they cover?
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Date: 2008-02-12 09:17 am (UTC)But I can understand that its very complicated - venturing into the realms of legal philosophy, who had the rights to make laws, and who should they cover?